A 53 year old man presented with a 2 week history of testicular swelling. He had complained of left inguinal swelling and pain 2 weeks prior and was admitted with a suspected incarcerated inguinal hernia. He was subsequently discharged on antibiotics. The swelling in his left groin disappeared but was replaced by gross testicular swelling and pain. His past medical history includes hypothyroidism and dilated cardiomyopathy.

He was hemodynamically normal on admission with no fever. His inflammatory markers revealed a high WCC and a CRP>250. What is the diagnosis from the CT image? How this patient should be managed? *This case is from Docplexus Editorial Team for educative purpose only.