A 60-year-old male presented to an orthopedic surgeon with complaints of swelling in his right lower extremity. The patient underwent right total knee replacement surgery eight days prior to this presentation. The preoperative tests, including CBC, liver, and kidney function tests were all normal. Doppler ultrasonography confirmed superficial femoral vein thrombosis. Laboratory findings revealed the following: hemoglobin, 12.2 g/dL, leukocyte count 8.5×10 9 /L, and platelet count 60×10 9 /L The patient was prescribed oxycodone and subcutaneous unfractionated heparin. However, if the use of subcutaneous heparin is discontinued, what would be the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Low-molecular-weight heparin therapy B. Direct thrombin inhibitor therapy C. Aspirin therapy D. Intravenous therapeutic doses of heparin *This question is from Docplexus…
