A 36-year-old female re-presented to the plastic surgery OPD following the excision of a bleeding pigmented lesion from her right arm. Histological examination The histology report confirms the lesion to be a superficial spreading malignant melanoma with a Breslow thickness of 1.84 mm. The report also describes a high mitotic count and ulceration. She has no evidence of enlarged lymph nodes in the right axilla.
She is very upset and worried. What is the next most appropriate surgical management for her? *This case is from Docplexus Editorial Team for educative purpose only Source: Medical Exam Tutor The answer is posted in the comment section. click here .
