A 51-year-old male was admitted with a presumed sepsis. He had fever and malaise for two weeks prior to admission. The patient had intravenous drug use history. Clinical features The patient was alert and oriented. His physical examination was unrevealing. BP 78/35 mmHg; HR 140 bpm; RR 32; and body temperature of 104.3°F Treatment The patient was administered piperacillin-tazobactam, gentamicin, and vancomycin with pending culture results.
CXR on admission: Absence of pulmonary edema Around 6 hours later, the patient developed acute respiratory failure requiring intubation. A post-intubation CXR ET (endotracheal tube) positioning showed very asymmetric infiltrates affecting the right lung field. A TTE (transthoracic echocardiogram) was performed a few hours post-intubation. What's your diagnosis? Source: Radiology (The correct answer is posted in the comment section below!)