A 68-year male presented in the OPD with two days of abrupt-onset left index proximal interphalangeal phalange (PIP) tenderness and swelling. He has a history of recurrent gout in ankles. Recent uric acid levels have been normal. He is currently not undergoing any gout treatment, and is not on any diuretics. Physical examination The pain and swelling are centered on the PIP, though the swelling and redness extend to the index and middle metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints. MCP joints are not tender.
No pain with passive movement of flexor tendons. No breaks in the skin or rashes. No systemic symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis and how will you manage this patient further? *This case is from the Editorial team of Docplexus and is meant for educative purposes only. The answer is posted in the comment section below!
