A 32-year-old woman presents a one-year history of frequent unilateral headaches with nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia. Her neurologic examination is normal, but magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) of the head demonstrate a 4-mm saccular aneurysm at the junction of the internal carotid and ophthalmic arteries. There is no known personal or family history of ruptured or unruptured aneurysms. What is your interpretation for this patient?
What course of action would you suggest? *This case is from Docplexus Editorial Team for educative purpose only. Source: A Neurology Journal
