A healthy 5-year-old boy presented with a 3-month history of an inflammatory mass on the scalp that had not responded to antibiotics. The physical examination revealed a boggy occipital swelling studded with pustules, as well as postauricular lymphadenopathy (arrow in the Image 1). The boy had no other symptoms, and the results of laboratory studies, including microbiologic swabs, were normal. A bacterial abscess was diagnosed, and he was referred for incision and drainage under general anesthesia.
Image 2 depict the same condition in an elderly male. Do you think the recommendation is appropriate? Will your diagnosis and recommendation be same? Source: NEJM, Faculty Of Medicine Blog (Detailed citation will be provided with explanation) *This case is from Docplexus editorial team for educative purpose only.
