Consider a situation where a female patient attends your clinic for an STD like Chlamydia and you treat her with a course of antibiotics. However, in 3 months time, she reports similar symptoms and undergoes similar treatment 3 more times. You suggest her to take her partner to the clinic so that he will be also treated for the infection, otherwise her treatment will be ineffectual. She claims that, as he doesn't have any symptoms of Chlamydia, he doesn't want to visit and start any treatment.
What would you do? Would you consider prescribing antibiotics for her partner as well, so that she will be re-infected?
