A healthy 40-year-old woman presented with a six-year history of a recurrent anterior mandibular swelling. She felt no pain. Had two prior surgeries to correct the original condition. When the lesion was previously removed, it was small and asymptomatic. The first surgery was done six years ago, and the second surgery two years later.
After the second surgery, the patient pursued herbal treatment. She returned three years later with no improvement and the current presentation (image). What are your differential and definitive diagnosis? *This case is from Docplexus editorial team for educative purpose only Source: DentistryIQ
