A healthy 32-year-old woman presents with a 1-year history of increasingly frequent episodic unilateral headaches associated with nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia.Her neurologic examination is normal. She undergoes MRI and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) of the head, which demonstrate a 4-mm saccular aneurysm at the junction of the internal carotid and ophthalmic arteries.There is no known personal or family history of ruptured or unruptured aneurysms.
What could be the most appropriate interpretation for this patient? *This case is by Docplexus Editorial Team for educative purpose only