A 22-year-old nulliparous woman complains of a 2-week history of vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting after intercourse. She denies a history of sexually transmitted diseases and uses no contraceptive agents. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her last menstrual period began one week ago and was normal. On examination, her blood pressure (BP) is 100/60 mm Hg, her heart rate (HR) is 80 beats per minute (bpm), and her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C). The heart and lung examinations are normal.
Her abdomen is non-tender and without masses. Her pelvic examination shows purulent vaginal discharge, which on Gram stain shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. Her pregnancy test is negative. NOTE: No other information about the patient is available. What is your most likely diagnosis for this woman, and what is the next step for treating her? ##Source## Case Files Obstetrics…
