A 61-year-old man presents with chronic left foot pain. He has pain in the medial ankle, especially when walking on uneven ground. Physical examination reveals a rigid flat foot deformity with tenderness along the posterior tibial tendon and pain with subtalar motion. He has hindfoot valgus and forefoot pronation that cannot be corrected passively beyond neutral.
Anteroposterior and lateral X-rays of the left foot (Cover Image) show an increased to-first metatarsal angle (Meary angle) and loss of arch height. He has failed at least 3 years of conservative treatment, including NSAIDs, rest, steroid injections, orthotics, and bracing. Which surgical option would you recommend for this patient? (Answer is posted in the comment section below!) *This patient case is from the Docplexus Editorial Team for educative purposes only.
